Thank you for your kind words. I am familiar with the Aramaic interpretations. Have covered all that before. One problem with this theory is that dots and diacritic marks were not used in Aramaic, Hebrew, or Arabic until the sixth century, AD. Just like spaces, punctuation and the rest weren't used in Greek or Latin. Certainly, Jesus could have used an Aramaic word with a double-meaning word. This was very much his style.
Since I don't offer interpretation of the Greek merely very nit-picky translation, this falls outside of my area of interest.
Thank you for your kind words. I am familiar with the Aramaic interpretations. Have covered all that before. One problem with this theory is that dots and diacritic marks were not used in Aramaic, Hebrew, or Arabic until the sixth century, AD. Just like spaces, punctuation and the rest weren't used in Greek or Latin. Certainly, Jesus could have used an Aramaic word with a double-meaning word. This was very much his style.
Since I don't offer interpretation of the Greek merely very nit-picky translation, this falls outside of my area of interest.