Luke 6:5 looks like a simple verse. It only has a few words, both in English and in Greek. It is translated to simply say: NIV: The Son of Man is Lord of the Sabbath. All versions of the Bible translate it this way. How can anything be lost in translation? Before we get into its serious mistranslation of the Greek, let us think about this as part of an argument. Jesus defends his followers for gleaning wheat on the Sabbath. Here is the accusation:
If the Sabbath is made for people, and Jesus Christ is Lord of people, then Jesus Christ is Lord of the Sabbath for the benefit of the people. We see that here when Jesus allowed his hungry disciples to pick off heads of grain and eat them even though it was the Sabbath.
I am simply saying that this isn't what Jesus said and that it makes no sense in terms of the context of argument. Did the Pharisees (and even his students at the time) think Jesus was Lord of all people? That wasn't his point. He isn't talking about what he permitted but what the religious authorities permitted.
If the Sabbath is made for people, and Jesus Christ is Lord of people, then Jesus Christ is Lord of the Sabbath for the benefit of the people. We see that here when Jesus allowed his hungry disciples to pick off heads of grain and eat them even though it was the Sabbath.
I am simply saying that this isn't what Jesus said and that it makes no sense in terms of the context of argument. Did the Pharisees (and even his students at the time) think Jesus was Lord of all people? That wasn't his point. He isn't talking about what he permitted but what the religious authorities permitted.